So, 2 years ago my husband decided to be unfaithful and sleep with his boss to get a promotion... and a week before he left, he convinced me to sign for a loan on a vehicle, which he of course didn't bother to make the payments on it and it got repo'd. I'm about to file for divorce and in the divorce I'm planning to ask for him to take 100% responsibility for the amount left owed on the truck after they sold it at auction and for him to also take 100$ responsibility for my student loan that I took out during the beginning of our marriage when he was out of work for a year. I'm fairly certain I'll win whatever I want just by the fact that he left the state and is probably too lazy to even respond to the court action, so my question is: if I do win what I want, in the event that he doesn't 'abide' by the ruling, will sending the divorce papers showing that he is fully responsible, to the credit bureaus, will they remove any 'negative' entries they might put on there?
An order from a family court case (e.g., divorce) can't change a financial contract. Meaning, a judge in family court can't issue a court order that removes your obligation to repay a debt (e.g., the truck loan). The lender doesn't care if you are married or not. All the lender knows is (a) they have a contract that you signed and, as such, you are obligated to complete the contract (repay the debt). A family court can't force a lender, whether it's a bank or credit union that lent money for an auto loan or the lender for a student loan, to relinquish YOUR obligation as a borrower. Sure, if you agreed and they put into a divorce degree that he would attempt to refinance a vehicle loan and he refused to try OR he agreed to pay off something and didn't, he could be found in contempt of court - but that doesn't change your obligation to repay a loan that you are responsible for IF he chooses to not pay.
