I am going to elaborate on a previous post, because I just thought of another potentially relevant and important question (admittedly, I am on martini #3): I moved, and had a cable bill go into collections. I thought I was paid in full with the cable company. I was wrong. Anyway, I went back to Comcast (the cable company), and paid the bill with a check. The check states that the payment represents payment in full and closure of the account. The question that I have is this: If I paid Comcast for the debt, doesn't that mean that CMI could never have really had a right to collect the debt in the first place. In other words: why would Comcast collect the debt from me if they had sold the right to collect the debt to CMI? In other/other words: can't I make the argument that I have never been provided a service BY CMI, never owed any money TO CMI, and therefore, I can tell CMI to go to hell and get off of my credit report? If anyone has any input, Iâ??d love to hear it (especially concerning the protocol on transferring or â??sellingâ? debts by one entity to another. Allright, Iâ??m off to prepare #4.
JLYNN, First of all, thanks for your interest in answering this question. The item on my credit report has the following information: (naturally, I am omitting or altering any information that those sneaky infamous Creditnet spies might use to identify me) Balance: 0 Loan Type: COLLECTION AGENCY / ATTORNEY Remarks: PLACED FOR COLLECTION 02/2003 Pay Status: PAYMENT AFTER CHARGE OFF / COLLECTION Account Type: OPEN ACCOUNT Responsibility: INDIVIDUAL ACCOUNT I don't really see anything that would answer your question, but I'm hoping you might. Thanks again, GABOOZ
