Last December, I paid 4 copayments (left after insurance) at a local hospital. They were paid after services. I had never received bills of any kind. Anyway, AFTER I paid them, they showed up on my credit report from a collection agency, though they were marked paid. Mind you, I had never received notice previously and I had never been contacted by this collection agency. I wrote letters to the CA, no response. I then wrote letters to the hospital, the CA, the attorney generals. At that point, all 4 were removed from my reports. However, today, I received the AG response from my state..it confuses me..along with the response they received from the CA. Basically, the collection agency gave some wierd story about being in conjunction with some other CA (who never contacted me) and that they "updated" my reports as paid in full. (Not true, an update makes it seem as if there were previous entries on my CA before payment, there was not!) Anyway, they went on to state "In any event, upon receipt of this complaint, we requested that the CRAs to whom the accounts had been previously reported remove them from the consumer's reports." Ok...the AG found then that there was no need to take further action at this time. It basically states that the agency did the right thing by "updating" as paid (again, they were never there to update) and that it was not required to delete accurately reported info fromthe credit report. It goes on to say that they will keep the info in case a pattern of complaints on this company arises. Now...my question....did the AG just give the CA permission to enter the info on my CR or did the letter from the CA saying they requested the info be removed mean I have proof of the removal request?? I don't understand and never will how this can be reported as a collection AFTER they are paid in full to the hospital. Your thoughts are greatly appreciated cuz I'm tired of worrying about this..and I am...someone tell me to breathe, please!