Thankfully I wasn't going to be relying on an 809 claim against the one company *phew*, but here is a tricky one. Since it says that the consumer has paid the debt, and not paid ON the debt; over $5,000 of this alleged $3,000+ debt was 'adjusted' to zero because of an FTC settlement requiring them to make everything go bye, bye on all of the $24 million dollars in remote venue judgements that they had obtained. (Since technically the consumer has not paid the debt). Would the 809 notice still be required on their lawyers first correspondence where they acknowldge that they are now a DEBT COLLECTOR.
I think this means if the customer pays the debt prior to the 5 days but on or after the first day. Other wise you would not have this protection from a CA attempting to collect again on an other wise paid debt. http://www.justsaywow.com/newfun4/mooyear.cfm ..
