Ok, I've begun to sort through the mound o' debt and I received another bill yesterday that I'm so confused on. Last October, fiance & I bought about $2400 of furniture on a no interest, no payment deal through Gardiner White. NO interest and NO payments until January of 2003. If the balance isn't paid in full by then, we run the risk of getting hit with all interest from the time of purchase. Fine. I understand that. Why then, am I getting a statement each month if there are in fact "no payments" due and I'm being hit with finance charges? I'm confused. The people at HRS (Gardiner White's creditor) are of no help. They keep telling us we're late. My last bill is $2700 with finance charges - $300 higher than the original bill of purchase? I have no clue how to go about this.
If you have the contract that spells out the terms of no interest no payments until 1/03, go ahead and copy it and send a letter to the finance company asking them if they'd like to get sued for billing you for merchandise you don't owe on yet.
It was "CODED" WRONG... Interest backdated to the PURCHASE date can only be added on the DAY AFTER 01/01/2003...IF NOT PAID IN FULL. If they "SHOW" it on the bill...FINE, but it can NOT be collected until 2003...AND you can not be LATE till 2003!!!
Really? Because they sent a collection notice this weekend for $260 that they're considering overdue!
Are you sure you had NO PAYMENTS AND NO INTEREST? WAL*MART store card has offered 0.00% INTEREST, but you had to make the minimum payments...they also have offered BOTH NO PAYMENTS AND NO INTEREST...
Yeah, I'm sure. It's stamped down at the bottom of each sheet "NO PAYMENTS/NO INTEREST UNTIL JANUARY 2, 2003" in big black letters.
It's POSSIBLE that they want the INTEREST now and refund it LATER??? ...BUT NO PAYMENT NO INTEREST SHOULD MEAN JUST THAT!!! Interest would be concidered a payment.
That's what I thought. The account is in FH's name, he's going to deal with them. Since I'm not on the account, they won't talk to me...
