I'm hoping you guys can help me. I visited my Dr. in July of 2000 and paid my 25%. Today, two years later, I find a bill from them in collection. I was shocked because I've paid my share of the cost at the point of service. So I sent them a validation and they send back a ledger thing, no signature showing my name a past address and employer and listing me as NO INSURANCE! So I sent back and told them their validation wasn't enough and they sent back stating it was, that a signature wasn't required for medical bills. That it was covered by "implied consent". Whatever THAT is! I am just so angry. If this really IS my bill why the hell didn't they bill insurance in a timely manner? Why should I have to pay a balance that their irresponsibility caused? I mean the nurses there called me prior to each appt to make sure I'd show so how come billing couldn't figure out how to call me before the time to file an insurance claim lapsed? All the rest of the times I've seen this doctor my insurance paid. So if this was me how could they manage to bill my insurance but suddenly list me as NO INSURANCE and how can I force them to take responsibility for their own shoddy work? I'm not sure what to do next. I want this off my report and frankly I should not have to pay because they screwed up like this.
#2 If the OC fails to bill your In.s Co. that does not mean the whole amount is the amount not covered by the Ins. Co. You may be liable for Deuctables, Co-Pays and amounts that EXCEED what is called the Usual and Custmoary Charge. It should say in your contract what heppens if an MP fails to properly bill. You should call your Ins. Co. in the morning and find out if they received this claim and when. Ask them for a letter explaining the specifics, whether they got the bill or not. http://consumers.creditnet.com/stra...threadid=27620&perpage=20&pgnum=&pagenumber=1
Also, check the account number on the statement from the doc that says no insurance. I used to work for a doctor and sometimes a person gets an account made twice (i.e., couldn't find them in the system, so just made a new one). So, perhaps they screwed up and used the wrong patient account. Just a thought.
Implied consent is a legal term indicating your acceptance of a contract through your behavior, rather than your signed or verbal consent. The classic example of implied consent is: a man walks into a barber shop and takes a seat in the barber's chair. The Barber believing the man wants a hair cut begins to cut the man's hair. When the barber is finished, the man refuses to pay stating that he never asked for a hair cut and never agreed to pay for one. In this case, the courts would rule that the man implicitly agreed to the contract for a haircut by his behavior, ie going into the babrber shop and sitting down in the chair, and allowing the barber to cut his hair. The courts would rule that the man is legally obligated to pay the fair market value of the services he received, regardless of the presense of a written or verbal agreement between the parties. This is what the doctor's office means by implied consent. If you can prove that the services you received were not worth what the Doctor is charging, based on a fair market evaluation, then you have a valid dispute. If you never received services from the doctor then you never had any contract, implicit or explicit.
Thanks for all the replies guys but I guess I wasn't very clear. (1) I did see this doctor. (2) I paid my portion of the bill at that time. (3) The company chose not to bill my insurance. (4) This company had billed my insurance ALL times previously in the past and no info had changed from past times and I had signed assignment. (4) They had all current contact info as they had just contacted me to rearrange this appt AND to remind me of it. But never sent info on this bill other than to put in collections. How do I get this off my report as I don't owe it? Thank you, Jo
This may help. My insurance has a policy that they will not pay if a bill is not submitted within a certain number of days by the doctor. The doctor agrees that if he screws up by failing to submit the bill on time, he cannot bill the patient. The doctor takes the loss, not the patient. This is a PPO (same rules applied in the HMO I used to have). If you have one one the other types of plans where the doctor does not have a contract with the insurer, this may not apply. The point is: Contact your insurer and see if they have this policy. Of course, also check to see of the claim was ever submitted. I have had bills forgiven because of this, including one just recently.
Hi Jo, Welcome to the board. You have a case here but you'll need to be a little patient. I know you just signed up but none of this stuff happens over night. And don't get angry. When EAGLES get mad they get smart. Mitch very eloquently pointed out that implied consent is a behavioral thing. But implied consent works BOTH ways. They consented to allow you to assume that all was well with your bills and that they were being properly paid. For ALL of your previous visits to this Doc. everything ran smoothly. You paid your 25% and the Doc billed the ins co. ALL of a sudden this behavioral model failed to work. You had every right to assume that this bill was treated no differently than the others. The real problem is that they did NOT notify you that there was a problem, which I'm sure you would have been delighted to help them straighten out had you known. Also your Doc probably has an agreement with your ins. co. that they will bill "on your behalf". If they fail to bill the claim according to their provider agreement the responsibility is not yours. It's called a "Provider Liability". Your next step is to follow the instruction IBrown pasted from my previous thread (scroll up). Call your ins. co. and explain the situation. Let them know that the Doc posted to your credit file. Ask if the claim was ever submitted and if so was it paid. Ask the CSR for a letter detailing the conversation to be sent to your home. We will use this to budge the Doc's office. BTW it does not matter if you have the same insurance still. It's the insurance you HAD at the time of service that governs here. So don't be afraid to call them, they will help you. We will await your post Monday to update us on the above. In the meantime what kind of insurance did/do you have? HMO, PPO, or commercial insurance. Was it through yours or your husbands work? How big is this bill? PS. Don't worry about validation right now. It's not an appropriate strategy just yet.
An absolutely BEAUTIFUL example of the application of Implied Consent. We can use their own language against them.
In the meantime what kind of insurance did/do you have? -- I have Champus. HMO, PPO, or commercial insurance. --Not the PPO nor the HMO Champus. Although you can use enrolled doctors it's been so long I don't remember if this doctor was enrolled or not. Was it through yours or your husbands work? -- It is through my husband's past military service. It was 80/20 while he was active duty and now as retired military it is 75/25. How big is this bill? -- The bill was originally $120.00 but is now claimed to be $135.00 BTW I have asked for validation twice. Both times they simply sent copies of the ledger and stated that was all that was required for medical bills because of implied consent. I also disputed this with the Credit Reporting agencies and the collection agency verified with them while I was requesting validation. Further they haven't listed this as in dispute in the Credit Reporting agencies files. Finally they are still trying to collect. Jo