If I understand LK's current round of suits, the following is the order of events: 1. OC sells/transfers/assigns/whatevers a delinquent account to a CA. 2. CA performs a hard. 3. CA notifies creditor of delinquency, attempting to collect. 4. Creditor sends validation request to CA. 5. CA never responds, maybe sends account back to OC or sells off to someone else (we really may not even know what they do with it). 6. LK sues CA for lack of PP to pull a hard (step 2). I'm curious as to what cnetters think about the validity of the suit. It seems to me that the CA did have PP at the time of the pull. If the OC pulled at that time, after selling to a CA, I could see why they would not have PP. I'm just not clear on why/how the CA committed a violation. What sections of federal code covers this? Or maybe I missed the entire point of LKs suits. Doooh. TIA
if the listed "timeline" was fact, it would be a hard sell First #1-UNLESS the account was SOLD, then the original creditor can pull all day SO CAN THE COLLECTION AGENCY. I HOPE this isnt an accurate depiction of events, beacuse the same statutes he is suing under, HE CAN BE LIABLE UNDER TOO
