Okay I guess by now most of you can tell I am new to this whole fight. I have an item that has been reported on my credit report as a date opened in 2003. This is an item that I paid in full to the OC before it ever became a collection item and I paid this thing in 1999. I have the receipt to prove it. When I called this CA they demanded that I send them proof. Why should I have to? I asked them to send me proof that it is owed. Of course they refused and even said they would sue to garnish since their phone identified my call was from my job. I'm not sure which violation is worst. Reporting a debt I do not owe or threatening to garnish my wages and I live in a non-garnishment state. Can I sue these people? To me, it is definitely worth it but I want to be PAID by them. I want a monetary resolve rather than a simple apology. They are awful! I have more than enough credit woes than to spend time being bothered with this one unless I can sue them and GET PAID for their violation..
I would send the CA a note (CMRR) to contact the OC as you paid this already in XXXX. Not sure how to address the getting $$ from them for the threats, but this gives you a paper trail in case you need it later. Myself I wouldn't have a problem sending a copy of the proof, so if it ever went to court you could show the judge that you have proof, sent it to the CA, and they totally ignored it.
