Hubby has some old medical bills, one of them he owes about $600 (was $1500), the CA is lying to anyone who will listen, CRA's, BBB, original creditor. I sent a letter saying delete your tradeline and send the bill back to the origianl creditor. My husband just called the doctors office and said he would pay them but not the CA. Anyway my question is, if I catch the CA in some more FDCPA violations is the original creditor also responsible. This is what hubby told the original creditor, and they got all nervous and said they don't want to get sued, so they are looking in to bringing back the bill. Also, if the bill IS sent back to the original creditor, does that mean that since the CA is no longer collecting on the bill that if I dispute it with the CRA they won't be able to verify. (it is only on TU they don't report to the other 2 bureaus). Thanks! KHM
I think your husband may be right, but not sure. Try running a search on "Agency Law". I know there has been some deep discussions about that fairly recently.
