I'd like some opinion on whether or not I am being reasonable. In short, I sent last month's car payment to well in advance of the due date (14th). Note that instead of going to Texas where the payments used to go (the company is based there) I sent the payment to the new payment center in Phoenix. The check cleared my bank account on the 15th but the loan company didn't show the payment hitting my account until the 27th! At first they said they never got a check and told me to send a copy of the front and back of the canceled check. So now that I have the proof in-hand, I sent a fax and demanded that they [a] remove the late fee and change my payment received date back to the 14th (stamped on the back of the check). A customer service wonk tells me they can't change the receipt date as it isn't feasable and it doesn't matter anyway because he doesn't show my account as being late. Now am I being reasonable in this request or am I being overly paranoid by thinking that some part of that computer has me flagged for paying late?
Sounds reasonable to me. Moreover, the date a payment is credited affects the amount of interest accrued on the unpaid portion of the debt. Saar
