1. Jul 22, 2003 #1
   

   chewtoy Member

   I have seen in several postings that per the FDCPA it is illegal to transfer or sell a debt that has not been validated.
   
   I've been through the FDCPA and can't find this.
   
   Can someone please provide the reference or correct act for this?
   
   Thanks

    

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3. Jul 22, 2003 #2
   

   jlynn Well-Known Member

   Its not in the FDCPA. The subsequent CA strategy letter in the sample letters forum is more a theory

    
4. Jul 22, 2003 #3
   

   lbrown59 Well-Known Member

    

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