I got 100% financing for a home I purchased in 2005. It was with two mortgages 80/20. Two months after I bought it Aug 2005 the housing market crashed and never looked back. I never missed or was late for a monthly payment for 3 years until my job transferred to the other side of the state in 2008. I tried to sell my house but it was already 80% underwater from 3 years before. I couldn't sell it or even rent it out quickly and since I lived across the state I decided to foreclose. Almost 4 years later it is really affecting my credit and chances of finding other employment. The big problem is how it's listed on my credit report...and this is what I'm hoping to find insight on. The 80% loan portion says that "foreclosure is in process" and the 20% loan says I'm just 4 years late. The company I just got turned down by asked if I could get some documents to them stating that this entire loan has been indeed foreclosed 4 years ago and is not currently open...but there's no way I could get that. I disputed both loans a few months ago stating they were "not mine" and they came back verified w/ the same info. My question is why are they still open accounts on my report and not just both showing foreclosed in 2008? How can the 80% loan be saying in the process of foreclosure 4 years after I stopped making paymemts? How long is that process??? My report said the loan was in the process of foreclosure almost 4 years ago also! By the time that "process" is over, the entire thing should be coming off my report since the last activity was in 2008 and I only have a few years left for it to be on my report for that 7 year time frame. Also, why does the 20% loan show open w/o even showing it's at least in the process of foreclosure? That should fall off in 3 years too b/c the last activity was in 2008. Because both are still open, it is killing my score even more and making employers not touch me b/c it looks like I'm currently in the midst of foreclosure eventhough it was almost 4 years ago. I think I'm going to dispute both again stating they're reporting the wrong amount. Does anyone have any insight into why they're both reporting the way they are and what the creditor's strategy is here? And also if it's a good idea to dispute again that it's the wrong amount and hoping they'll delete it? Thank you for any help!